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Free AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional Practice Exam with 2022 Refreshed SAP-C01 Exam Dumps Questions

Do you want to pass your SAP-C01 exam in first attempt? Just use Updated SAP-C01 Exam questions offered by Certspilot and Pass your exam on first try, Certspilot provide 700+ questions in PDF format for SAP-C01 exam preparation, Just prepare all questions well and pass your AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional Exam. Below are Free SAP-C01 Practice Exam questions.

Below are free AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional SAP-C01 Dumps, Practice on 2022 Updated Questions for SAP-C01 Exam.

 

1. Which of the following components of AWS Data Pipeline polls for tasks and then performs those tasks?

2. A user is hosting a public website on AWS. The user wants to have the database and the app server on the AWS VPC. The user wants to setup a database that can connect to the Internet for any patch upgrade but cannot receive any request from the internet. How can the user set this up?

3.

4. An organization is setting up their website on AWS. The organization is working on various security measures to be performed on the AWS EC2 instances.

Which of the below mentioned security mechanisms will not help the organization to avoid future data leaks and identify security weaknesses?

5. In Amazon ElastiCache, the default cache port is:

6. A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. The VPC has CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The private subnet uses CIDR 20.0.0.0/24. The NAT instance ID is i-a12345.

Which of the below mentioned entries are required in the main route table attached with the private subnet to allow instances to connect with the internet?

7. Which of the following cannot be used to manage Amazon ElastiCache and perform administrative tasks?

8. Which of the following statements is correct about AWS Direct Connect?

9. Which of the following statements is correct about the number of security groups and rules applicable for an EC2-Classic instance and an EC2-VPC network interface?

10. Is there any way to own a direct connection to Amazon Web Services?

11. Identify a true statement about the statement ID (Sid) in IAM.

12. In Amazon ElastiCache, which of the following statements is correct?

13. An organization has setup RDS with VPC. The organization wants RDS to be accessible from the internet. Which of the below mentioned configurations is not required in this scenario?

14. An organization, which has the AWS account ID as 999988887777, has created 50 IAM users. All the users are added to the same group ABC.

If the organization has enabled that each IAM user can login with the AWS console, which AWS login URL will the IAM users use??

15. Can you configure multiple Load Balancers with a single Auto Scaling group?

16. An Auto Scaling group is running at the desired capacity of 5 instances and receives a trigger from the Cloudwatch Alarm to increase the capacity by 1. The cool down period is 5 minutes. Cloudwatch sends another trigger after 2 minutes to decrease the desired capacity by 1.

What will be the count of instances at the end of 4 minutes?

17. Which of the following is NOT a true statement about Auto Scaling?

18. A user wants to configure AutoScaling which scales up when the CPU utilization is above 70% and scales down when the CPU utilization is below 30%.

How can the user configure AutoScaling for the above mentioned condition?

19. Can a user configure a custom health check with Auto Scaling?

20. You have setup an Auto Scaling group. The cool down period for the Auto Scaling group is 7 minutes. The first scaling activity request for the Auto Scaling group is to launch two instances. It receives the activity question at time "t", and the first instance is launched at t+3 minutes, while the second instance is launched at t+4 minutes.

How many minutes after time "t" will Auto Scaling accept another scaling activity request?

21. You have just added a new instance to your Auto Scaling group, which receives ELB health checks. An ELB heath check says the new instance's state is out of Service.

What does Auto Scaling do in this particular scenario?

22. A sys admin is maintaining an application on AWS. The application is installed on EC2 and user has configured ELB and Auto Scaling. Considering future load increase, the user is planning to launch new servers proactively so that they get registered with ELB.

How can the user add these instances with Auto Scaling?

23. You have set up Auto Scaling to automatically scale in. Consequently, you must decide which instances Auto Scaling should end first.

What should you use to configure this?

24. Which of the following commands accepts binary data as parameters?

25. To scale out the AWS resources using manual AutoScaling, which of the below mentioned parameters should the user change?

26. After moving an E-Commerce website for a client from a dedicated server to AWS you have also set up auto scaling to perform health checks on the instances in your group and replace instances that fail these checks. Your client has come to you with his own health check system that he wants you to use as it has proved to be very useful prior to his site running on AWS.

What do you think would be an appropriate response to this given all that you know about auto scaling and CloudWatch?

27. Identify a benefit of using Auto Scaling for your application.

28. A user has suspended the scaling process on the Auto Scaling group. A scaling activity to increase the instance count was already in progress.

What effect will the suspension have on that activity?

29. Does Autoscaling automatically assign tags to resources?

30. If you have a running instance using an Amazon EBS boot partition, you can call the                 API to release the compute resources but preserve the data on the boot partition.

31. Which EC2 functionality allows the user to place the Cluster Compute instances in clusters?

32. A user has launched a dedicated EBS backed instance with EC2. You are curious where the EBS volume for this instance will be created.

Which statement is correct about the EBS volume's creation?

33. Which system is used by Amazon Machine Images paravirtual (PV) virtualization during the boot process?

34. You have written a CloudFormation template that creates 1 Elastic Load Balancer fronting 2 EC2 Instances.

Which section of the template should you edit so that the DNS of the load balancer is returned upon creation of the stack?

35. In CloudFormation, if you want to map an Amazon Elastic Block Store to an Amazon EC2 instance,

36. An organization hosts an app on EC2 instances which multiple developers need access to in order to perform

updates.

The organization plans to implement some security best practices related to instance access. Which one of the following recommendations will not help improve its security in this way?

37. A user has configured two security groups which allow traffic as given below: 1: SecGrp1: Inbound on port 80 for 0.0.0.0/0 Inbound on port 22 for 0.0.0.0/0 2: SecGrp2:

Inbound on port 22 for 10.10.10.1/32

If both the security groups are associated with the same instance, which of the below mentioned statements is true?

38. You have a website which requires international presence and consequently you have set it up as follows. It is hosted on 30 EC2 instances.

It is on in 15 regions around the globe. Each region has 2 instances. All the instances are a public hosted zone.

Which of the following is the best way to configure your site to maintain availability with minimum downtime if one of the 15 regions was to lose network connectivity for an extended period? (Choose two.)

39. A user is accessing an EC2 instance on the SSH port for IP 10.20.30.40/32.

Which one is a secure way to configure that the instance can be accessed only from this IP?

40. While assigning a tag to an instance, which of the below mentioned options is not a valid tag key/value pair?

41. Will you be able to access EC2 snapshots using the regular Amazon S3 APIs?

42. A user has created an AWS AMI. The user wants the AMI to be available only to his friend and not anyone else. How can the user manage this?

43. A user is planning to launch multiple EC2 instance same as current running instance.

Which of the below mentioned parameters is not copied by Amazon EC2 in the launch wizard when the user has selected the option "Launch more like this"?

44. A user has launched an EBS optimized instance with EC2. Which of the below mentioned options is the correct statement?

45. Which status represents a failure state in AWS CloudFormation?

46. You are playing around with setting up stacks using JSON templates in CloudFormation to try and understand them a little better. You have set up about 5 or 6 but now start to wonder if you are being charged for these stacks.

What is AWS's billing policy regarding stack resources?

47. In an AWS CloudFormation template, each resource declaration includes:

48. For AWS CloudFormation, which stack state refuses UpdateStack calls?

49. In the context of AWS CloudFormation, which of the following statements is correct?

50. When using the AWS CLI for AWS CloudFormation, which of the following commands returns a description of the specified resource in the specified stack?

51. A user is using CloudFormation to launch an EC2 instance and then configure an application after the instance is launched. The user wants the stack creation of ELB and AutoScaling to wait until the EC2 instance is launched and configured properly.

How can the user configure this?

52. AWS                      supports                  environments as one of the AWS resource types.

53. AWS CloudFormation             are special actions you use in your template to assign values to properties that are not available until runtime.

54. For Amazon EC2 issues, while troubleshooting AWS CloudFormation, you need to view the cloud-init and cfn

logs for more information. Identify a directory to which these logs are published.

55. True or false: In a CloudFormation template, you can reuse the same logical ID several times to reference the resources in other parts of the template.

56. True or false: In CloudFormation, you cannot create an Amazon RDS DB instance from a snapshot.

57. How can you check the operational validity of your AWS CloudFormation template?

58. What is a circular dependency in AWS CloudFormation?

59. You need to develop and run some new applications on AWS and you know that Elastic Beanstalk and CloudFormation can both help as a deployment mechanism for a broad range of AWS resources.

Which of the following is TRUE statements when describing the differences between Elastic Beanstalk and CloudFormation?

60. An elastic network interface (ENI) is a virtual network interface that you can attach to an instance in a VPC. An ENI can include one public IP address, which can be auto-assigned to the elastic network interface for eth0 when you launch an instance, but only when you                           .

61. After setting an AWS Direct Connect, which of the following cannot be done with an AWS Direct Connect Virtual Interface?

62. Identify a correct statement about the expiration date of the "Letter of Authorization and Connecting Facility Assignment (LOA-CFA)," which lets you complete the Cross Connect step of setting up your AWS Direct Connect.

63. Which of the following is the final step that should be completed to start using AWS Direct Connect?

64. A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The user has created one subnet with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16 by mistake. The user is trying to create another subnet of CIDR 20.0.1.0/24.

How can the user create the second subnet?

65. Which of the following should be followed before connecting to Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) using AWS Direct Connect?

66. Your supervisor has given you the task of creating an elastic network interface on each of your web servers that connect to a mid-tier network where an application server resides. He also wants this set up as a Dual- homed Instance on Distinct Subnets. Instead of routing network packets through the dual-homed instances, where should each dual-homed instance receive and process requests to fulfil his criteria?

67. A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16 using the wizard. The user has created a public subnet CIDR (20.0.0.0/24) and VPN only subnets CIDR (20.0.1.0/24) along with the VPN gateway (vgw-123456) to connect to the user's data center. The user's data center has CIDR 172.28.0.0/12. The user has also setup a NAT instance (i- 123456) to allow traffic to the internet from the VPN subnet.

Which of the below mentioned options is not a valid entry for the main route table in this scenario?

68. In which step of "start using AWS Direct Connect" steps is the virtual interface you created tagged with a customer-provided tag that complies with the Ethernet 802.1Q standard?

69. A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16 using the VPC wizard. The user has created public and VPN only subnets along with hardware VPN access to connect to the user's data center. The user has not yet launched any instance as well as modified or deleted any setup. He wants to delete this VPC from the console.

Will the console allow the user to delete the VPC?

70. You have been asked to set up a public website on AWS with the following criteria:

You want the database and the application server running on an Amazon VPC. You want the database to be able to connect to the Internet so that it can be automatically updated to the correct patch level.

You do not want to receive any incoming traffic from the Internet to the database.

Which solutions would be the best to satisfy all the above requirements for your planned public website on AWS? (Choose two.)

71.

72. Which statement is NOT true about accessing remote AWS region in the US by your AWS Direct Connect which is located in the US?

73. Which of the following statements is NOT correct when working with your AWS Direct Connect connection after it is set up completely?

74. Over which of the following Ethernet standards does AWS Direct Connect link your internal network to an AWS Direct Connect location?

75. One of the components that is part of ec2-net-utils used with ENI's is ec2ifscan. Which of the following is not correct about ec2-net-utils?

76. A user wants to create a public subnet in VPC and launch an EC2 instance within it. The user has not selected the option to assign a public IP address while launching the instance.

Which of the below mentioned statements is true with respect to this scenario?

77. A user has created a VPC with a public subnet. The user has terminated all the instances which are part of the subnet.

Which of the below mentioned statements is true with respect to this scenario?

78. When configuring your customer gateway to connect to your VPC, the                  Association is established first between the virtual private gateway and customer gateway using the Pre-Shared Key as theauthenticator.

79. An organization is trying to setup a VPC with Auto Scaling. Which configuration steps below is not required to setup AWS VPC with Auto Scaling?

80. An organization is planning to host a Wordpress blog as well as joomla CMS on a single instance launched with VPC. The organization wants to create separate domains for each application using Route 53. The organization may have about ten instances each with these two applications. While launching each instance, the organization configured two separate network interfaces (primary + secondary ENI) with their own Elastic IPs to the instance. The suggestion was to use a public IP from AWS instead of an Elastic IP as the number of elastic IPs allocation per region is restricted in the account.

What action will you recommend to the organization?

 

81. A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets. The VPC has CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The private subnet uses CIDR 20.0.1.0/24 and the public subnet uses CIDR 20.0.0.0/24. The user is planning to host a web server in the public subnet (port 80) and a DB server in the private subnet (port 3306). The user is configuring a security group of the NAT instance.

Which of the below mentioned entries is not required in NAT's security group for the database servers to connect to the Internet for software updates?

82. A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. Which of the below mentioned statements is true in this scenario?

83. A user has created a VPC with two subnets: one public and one private. The user is planning to run the patch update for the instances in the private subnet.

How can the instances in the private subnet connect to the internet?

84. A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC Wizard. The VPC has CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The private subnet uses CIDR 20.0.0.0/24.

Which of the below mentioned entries are required in the main route table to allow the instances in VPC to communicate with each other?

85. You want to establish redundant VPN connections and customer gateways on your network by setting up a second VPN connection.

Which of the following will ensure that this functions correctly?

86. Someone is creating a VPC for their application hosting. He has created two private subnets in the same availability zone and created one subnet in a separate availability zone. He wants to make a High Availability system with an internal Elastic Load Balancer.

Which choice is true regarding internal ELBs in this scenario? (Choose two.)

87. To ensure failover capabilities on an elastic network interface (ENI), what should you use for incoming traffic?

88. An organization is setting up a highly scalable application using Elastic Beanstalk. The organization is using ELB and RDS with VPC. The organization has public and private subnets within the cloud.

Which of the below mentioned configurations will not work in this scenario?

89. In DynamoDB, a projection is                   .

90. Which of the following is NOT true of the DynamoDB Console?

91. DynamoDB uses only as a transport protocol, not as a storage format.

92. In DynamoDB, which of the following allows you to set alarms when you reach a specified threshold for a metric?a

93. Is it possible to load data from Amazon DynamoDB into Amazon Redshift?

94. In regard to DynamoDB, when you cr eate a table with a hash-and-range key.

95. Someone has recommended a new client to you and you know he is into online gaming and you are almost certain he will want to set up an online gaming site which will require a database service that provides fast and predictable performance with seamless scalability.

Which of the following AWS databases would be best suited to an online gaming site?

96. In DynamoDB, "The data is eventually consistent" means that                     .

 

97.                       pricing offers significant savings over the normal price of DynamoDB provisioned throughput capacity.

98. In DynamoDB, which of the following operations is not possible by the console?

99. In order for a table write to succeed, the provisioned throughput settings for the table and global secondary indexes, in DynamoDB, must have                   ; otherwise, the write to the table will be throttled.

100. In DynamoDB, to get a detailed listing of secondary indexes on a table, you can use the               action.

101. In regard to DynamoDB, for which one of the following parameters does Amazon not charge you?

102. Complete this statement: "When you load your table directly from an Amazon            table, you have the option to control the amount of provisioned throughput you consume."

103. Which of the following does Amazon DynamoDB perform?

104. A Provisioned IOPS volume must be at least                     GB in size:

105. A user has launched two EBS backed EC2 instances in the US-East-1a region. The user wants to change the zone of one of the instances. How can the user change it?

106. In Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud, you can specify storage volumes in addition to the root device volume when you create an AMI or when launching a new instance using                .

107. You create an Amazon Elastic File System (EFS) file system and mount targets for the file system in your Virtual Private Cloud (VPC). Identify the initial permissions you can grant to the group root of your file system.

108. You want to mount an Amazon EFS file system on an Amazon EC2 instance using DNS names. Which of the following generic form of a mount target's DNS name must you use to mount the file system?

109. A user is creating a Provisioned IOPS volume. What is the maximum ratio the user should configure between Provisioned IOPS and the volume size?

110. Your Application is not highly available, and your on-premises server cannot access the mount target because the Availability Zone (AZ) in which the mount target exists is unavailable.

Which of the following actions is recommended?

111. Which of the following Amazon RDS storage types is ideal for applications with light or burst I/O requirements?

112. When I/O performance is more important than fault tolerance, which of the following configurations should be used?

113. Amazon Elastic File System (EFS) provides information about the space used for an object by using the space

_ used attribute of the Network File System Version 4.1 (NFSv4.1). The attribute includes the object's current metered data size and not the metadata size. Which of the following utilities will you use to measure the amount of disk that is used of a file?

 

114. You have custom Network File System (NFS) client settings for your Amazon Elastic File System (EFS). It takes up to three seconds for an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instance to see a write operation performed on a file system from another Amazon EC2 instance.

Which of the following actions should you take to solve the custom NFS settings from causing delays in the write operation?

115. Which of the following rules must be added to a mount target security group to access Amazon Elastic File System (EFS) from an on-premises server?

116. Which of the following is true of Amazon EBS encryption keys?

117. A user is creating a snapshot of an EBS volume. Which of the below statements is incorrect in relation to the creation of an EBS snapshot?

118. A user is running a critical batch process which runs for 1 hour and 50 mins every day at a fixed time. Which of the below mentioned options is the right instance type and costing model in this case if the user performs the same task for the whole year?

119. A user has created a launch configuration for Auto Scaling where CloudWatch detailed monitoring is disabled. The user wants to now enable detailed monitoring.

How can the user achieve this?

120. A user is sending a custom metric to CloudWatch. If the call to the CloudWatch APIs has different dimensions, but the same metric name, how will CloudWatch treat all the requests?

121. What is the maximum number of data points for an HTTP data request that a user can include in PutMetricRequest in the CloudWatch?

122. You have set up a huge amount of network infrastructure in AWS and you now need to think about monitoring all of this. You decide CloudWatch will best fit your needs but you are unsure of the pricing structure and the limitations of CloudWatch.

Which of the following statements is TRUE in relation to the limitations of CloudWatch?

 

123. A user is trying to send custom metrics to CloudWatch using the PutMetricData APIs. Which of the below mentioned points should the user needs to take care while sending the data to CloudWatch?

124. You set up your first Lambda function and want to set up some Cloudwatch metrics to monitor your function. Which of the following Lambda metrics can Cloudwatch monitor?

125. How many metrics are supported by CloudWatch for Auto Scaling?

126. A user has enabled detailed CloudWatch monitoring with the AWS Simple Notification Service. Which of the below mentioned statements helps the user understand detailed monitoring better?

127. An AWS account owner has setup multiple IAM users. One of these IAM users, named John, has CloudWatch access, but no access to EC2 services. John has setup an alarm action which stops EC2 instances when their CPU utilization is below the threshold limit.

When an EC2 instance's CPU Utilization rate drops below the threshold John has set, what will happen and why?

128. A user has configured an EC2 instance in the US-East-1a zone. The user has enabled detailed monitoring of the instance. The user is trying to get the data from CloudWatch using a CLI.

Which of the below mentioned CloudWatch endpoint URLs should the user use?

129. Which of the following is not included in the metrics sent from Billing to Amazon CloudWatch?

130. After your Lambda function has been running for some time, you need to look at some metrics to ascertain how your function is performing and decide to use the AWS CLI to do this.

Which of the following commands must be used to access these metrics using the AWS CLI?

131. In Amazon CloudWatch, you can publish your own metrics with the put-metric-data command. When you create a new metric using the put-metric-data command, it can take up to two minutes before you can retrieve statistics on the new metric using the get-metric-statistics command.

How long does it take before the new metric appears in the list of metrics retrieved using the list- metrics command?

132. A company runs a legacy system on a single m4.2xlarge Amazon EC2 instance with Amazon EBS storage. The EC2 instance runs both the web server and a self-managed Oracle database. A snapshot is made of the EBS volume every 12 hours, and an AMI was created from the fully configured EC2 instance.

A recent event that terminated the EC2 instance led to several hours of downtime. The application was successfully launched from the AMI, but the age of the EBS snapshot and the repair of the database resulted in the loss of 8 hours of data. The system was also down for 4 hours while the Systems Operators manually performed these processes.

What architectural changes will minimize downtime and reduce the chance of lost data?

133. A Solutions Architect is working with a company that operates a standard three-tier web application in AWS. The web and application tiers run on Amazon EC2 and the database tier runs on Amazon RDS. The company is redesigning the web and application tiers to use Amazon API Gateway and AWS Lambda, and the company intends to deploy the new application within 6 months. The IT Manager has asked the Solutions Architect to reduce costs in the interim.

Which solution will be MOST cost effective while maintaining reliability?

134. A company uses Amazon S3 to store documents that may only be accessible to an Amazon EC2 instance in a certain virtual private cloud (VPC). The company fears that a malicious insider with access to this instance could also set up an EC2 instance in another VPC to access these documents.

Which of the following solutions will provide the required protection?

135. The Solutions Architect manages a serverless application that consists of multiple API gateways, AWS Lambda functions, Amazon S3 buckets, and Amazon DynamoDB tables. Customers say that a few application

components slow while loading dynamic images, and some are timing out with the “504 Gateway Timeout” error. While troubleshooting the scenario, the Solutions Architect confirms that DynamoDB monitoring metrics are at acceptable levels.

Which of the following steps would be optimal for debugging these application issues? (Choose two.)

136. A Solutions Architect is designing the storage layer for a recently purchased application. The application will be running on Amazon EC2 instances and has the following layers and requirements:

Data layer: A POSIX file system shared across many systems.

Service layer: Static file content that requires block storage with more than 100k IOPS. Which combination of AWS services will meet these needs? (Choose two.)

137. A company has an application that runs a web service on Amazon EC2 instances and stores .jpg images in Amazon S3. The web traffic has a predictable baseline, but often demand spikes unpredictably for short periods of time. The application is loosely coupled and stateless. The .jpg images stored in Amazon S3 are accessed frequently for the first 15 to 20 days, they are seldom accessed thereafter but always need to be immediately available. The CIO has asked to find ways to reduce costs.

Which of the following options will reduce costs? (Choose two.)

138. A hybrid network architecture must be used during a company’s multi-year data center migration from multiple private data centers to AWS. The current data centers are linked together with private fiber. Due to unique legacy applications, NAT cannot be used. During the migration period, many applications will need access to other applications in both the data centers and AWS.

 

Which option offers a hybrid network architecture that is secure and highly available, that allows for high bandwidth and a multi-region deployment post-migration?

139. A company is currently running a production workload on AWS that is very I/O intensive. Its workload consists of a single tier with 10 c4.8xlarge instances, each with 2 TB gp2 volumes. The number of processing jobs has recently increased, and latency has increased as well. The team realizes that they are constrained on the IOPS. For the application to perform efficiently, they need to increase the IOPS by 3,000 for each of the instances.

Which of the following designs will meet the performance goal MOST cost effectively?

140. A company’s data center is connected to the AWS Cloud over a minimally used 10 Gbps AWS Direct Connect connection with a private virtual interface to its virtual private cloud (VPC). The company internet connection is 200 Mbps, and the company has a 150 TB dataset that is created each Friday. The data must be transferred and available in Amazon S3 on Monday morning.

Which is the LEAST expensive way to meet the requirements while allowing for data transfer growth?

141. A company has created an account for individual Development teams, resulting in a total of 200 accounts. All accounts have a single virtual private cloud (VPC) in a single region with multiple microservices running in Docker containers that need to communicate with microservices in other accounts. The Security team requirements state that these microservices must not traverse the public internet, and only certain internal services should be allowed to call other individual services. If there is any denied network traffic for a service, the Security team must be notified of any denied requests, including the source IP.

How can connectivity be established between service while meeting the security requirements?

142. A company runs a dynamic mission-critical web application that has an SLA of 99.99%. Global application users access the application 24/7. The application is currently hosted on premises and routinely fails to meet its SLA, especially when millions of users access the application concurrently. Remote users complain of latency.

How should this application be redesigned to be scalable and allow for automatic failover at the lowest cost?

143. A company manages more than 200 separate internet-facing web applications. All of the applications are deployed to AWS in a single AWS Region. The fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) of all of the applications are made available through HTTPS using Application Load Balancers (ALBs). The ALBs are configured to use public SSL/TLS certificates.

A Solutions Architect needs to migrate the web applications to a multi-region architecture. All HTTPS services should continue to work without interruption.

Which approach meets these requirements?

144. An e-commerce company is revamping its IT infrastructure and is planning to use AWS services. The company’s CIO has asked a Solutions Architect to design a simple, highly available, and loosely coupled order processing application. The application is responsible for receiving and processing orders before storing them in an Amazon DynamoDB table. The application has a sporadic traffic pattern and should be able to scale during marketing campaigns to process the orders with minimal delays.

Which of the following is the MOST reliable approach to meet the requirements?

145. A company has an application written using an in-house software framework. The framework installation takes 30 minutes and is performed with a user data script. Company Developers deploy changes to the application frequently. The framework installation is becoming a bottleneck in this process.

Which of the following would speed up this process?

146. A company wants to ensure that the workloads for each of its business units have complete autonomy and a minimal blast radius in AWS. The Security team must be able to control access to the resources and services in the account to ensure that particular services are not used by the business units.

How can a Solutions Architect achieve the isolation requirements?

147. A company is migrating a subset of its application APIs from Amazon EC2 instances to run on a serverless infrastructure. The company has set up Amazon API Gateway, AWS Lambda, and Amazon DynamoDB for the new application. The primary responsibility of the Lambda function is to obtain data from a third-party Software as a Service (SaaS) provider. For consistency, the Lambda function is attached to the same virtual private cloud (VPC) as the original EC2 instances.

Test users report an inability to use this newly moved functionality, and the company is receiving 5xx errors from API Gateway. Monitoring reports from the SaaS provider shows that the requests never made it to its systems. The company notices that Amazon CloudWatch Logs are being generated by the Lambda functions. When the same functionality is tested against the EC2 systems, it works as expected.

What is causing the issue?

148. A Solutions Architect is working with a company that is extremely sensitive to its IT costs and wishes to implement controls that will result in a predictable AWS spend each month.

Which combination of steps can help the company control and monitor its monthly AWS usage to achieve a cost that is as close as possible to the target amount? (Choose three.)

149. A large global company wants to migrate a stateless mission-critical application to AWS. The application is based on IBM WebSphere (application and integration middleware), IBM MQ (messaging middleware), and IBM DB2 (database software) on a z/OS operating system.

How should the Solutions Architect migrate the application to AWS?

150. A media storage application uploads user photos to Amazon S3 for processing. End users are reporting that some uploaded photos are not being processed properly. The Application Developers trace the logs and find that AWS Lambda is experiencing execution issues when thousands of users are on the system simultaneously. Issues are caused by:

Limits around concurrent executions.

The performance of Amazon DynamoDB when saving data.

Which actions can be taken to increase the performance and reliability of the application? (Choose two.)

151. A media storage application uploads user photos to Amazon S3 for processing. End users are reporting that some uploaded photos are not being processed properly. The Application Developers trace the logs and find that AWS Lambda is experiencing execution issues when thousands of users are on the system simultaneously. Issues are caused by:

Limits around concurrent executions.

The performance of Amazon DynamoDB when saving data.

Which actions can be taken to increase the performance and reliability of the application? (Choose two.)

152. A company operates a group of imaging satellites. The satellites stream data to one of the company’s ground stations where processing creates about 5 GB of images per minute. This data is added to network-attached storage, where 2 PB of data are already stored.

The company runs a website that allows its customers to access and purchase the images over the Internet. This website is also running in the ground station. Usage analysis shows that customers are most likely to access images that have been captured in the last 24 hours.

The company would like to migrate the image storage and distribution system to AWS to reduce costs and increase the number of customers that can be served.

Which AWS architecture and migration strategy will meet these requirements?

153. A company ingests and processes streaming market data. The data rate is constant. A nightly process that calculates aggregate statistics is run, and each execution takes about 4 hours to complete. The statistical analysis is not mission critical to the business, and previous data points are picked up on the next execution if a particular run fails.

The current architecture uses a pool of Amazon EC2 Reserved Instances with 1-year reservations running full time to ingest and store the streaming data in attached Amazon EBS volumes. On-Demand EC2 instances are launched each night to perform the nightly processing, accessing the stored data from NFS shares on the ingestion servers, and terminating the nightly processing servers when complete. The Reserved Instance reservations are expiring, and the company needs to determine whether to purchase new reservations or implement a new design.

Which is the most cost-effective design?

154. A three-tier web application runs on Amazon EC2 instances. Cron daemons are used to trigger scripts that collect the web server, application, and database logs and send them to a centralized location every hour. Occasionally, scaling events or unplanned outages have caused the instances to stop before the latest logs were collected, and the log files were lost.

Which of the following options is the MOST reliable way of collecting and preserving the log files?

155. A company stores sales transaction data in Amazon DynamoDB tables. To detect anomalous behaviors and respond quickly, all changes to the items stored in the DynamoDB tables must be logged within 30 minutes.

Which solution meets the requirements?

156. A company is running multiple applications on Amazon EC2. Each application is deployed and managed by multiple business units. All applications are deployed on a single AWS account but on different virtual private clouds (VPCs). The company uses a separate VPC in the same account for test and development purposes.

Production applications suffered multiple outages when users accidentally terminated and modified resources that belonged to another business unit. A Solutions Architect has been asked to improve the availability of the

company applications while allowing the Developers access to the resources they need. Which option meets the requirements with the LEAST disruption?

157. An enterprise runs 103 line-of-business applications on virtual machines in an on-premises data center. Many of the applications are simple PHP, Java, or Ruby web applications, are no longer actively developed, and serve little traffic.

Which approach should be used to migrate these applications to AWS with the LOWEST infrastructure costs?

 

158. A Solutions Architect must create a cost-effective backup solution for a company’s 500MB source code repository of proprietary and sensitive applications. The repository runs on Linux and backs up daily to tape. Tape backups are stored for 1 year.

The current solution is not meeting the company’s needs because it is a manual process that is prone to error, expensive to maintain, and does not meet the need for a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 1 hour or Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of 2 hours. The new disaster recovery requirement is for backups to be stored offsite and to be able to restore a single file if needed.

Which solution meets the customer’s needs for RTO, RPO, and disaster recovery with the LEAST effort and expense?

159. A company CFO recently analyzed the company’s AWS monthly bill and identified an opportunity to reduce the cost for AWS Elastic Beanstalk environments in use. The CFO has asked a Solutions Architect to design a highly available solution that will spin up an Elastic Beanstalk environment in the morning and terminate it at the end of the day.

The solution should be designed with minimal operational overhead and to minimize costs. It should also be able to handle the increased use of Elastic Beanstalk environments among different teams, and must provide a one- stop scheduler solution for all teams to keep the operational costs low.

What design will meet these requirements?

160. A company plans to move regulated and security-sensitive businesses to AWS. The Security team is developing a framework to validate the adoption of AWS best practices and industry-recognized compliance standards. The AWS Management Console is the preferred method for teams to provision resources.

Which strategies should a Solutions Architect use to meet the business requirements and continuously assess, audit, and monitor the configurations of AWS resources? (Choose two.)

161. A company is running a high-user-volume media-sharing application on premises. It currently hosts about 400 TB of data with millions of video files. The company is migrating this application to AWS to improve reliability and reduce costs.

The Solutions Architecture team plans to store the videos in an Amazon S3 bucket and use Amazon CloudFront to distribute videos to users. The company needs to migrate this application to AWS within 10 days with the least amount of downtime possible. The company currently has 1 Gbps connectivity to the Internet with 30 percent free capacity.

Which of the following solutions would enable the company to migrate the workload to AWS and meet all of the requirements?

162. A company plans to move regulated and security-sensitive businesses to AWS. The Security team is developing a framework to validate the adoption of AWS best practices and industry-recognized compliance standards. The AWS Management Console is the preferred method for teams to provision resources.

Which strategies should a Solutions Architect use to meet the business requirements and continuously assess, audit, and monitor the configurations of AWS resources? (Choose two.)

163. A company plans to move regulated and security-sensitive businesses to AWS. The Security team is developing a framework to validate the adoption of AWS best practices and industry-recognized compliance standards. The AWS Management Console is the preferred method for teams to provision resources.

Which strategies should a Solutions Architect use to meet the business requirements and continuously assess, audit, and monitor the configurations of AWS resources? (Choose two.)

164. A company is running a high-user-volume media-sharing application on premises. It currently hosts about 400 TB of data with millions of video files. The company is migrating this application to AWS to improve reliability and reduce costs.

The Solutions Architecture team plans to store the videos in an Amazon S3 bucket and use Amazon CloudFront to distribute videos to users. The company needs to migrate this application to AWS within 10 days with the least amount of downtime possible. The company currently has 1 Gbps connectivity to the Internet with 30 percent free capacity.

Which of the following solutions would enable the company to migrate the workload to AWS and meet all of the requirements?

165. A company has developed a new billing application that will be released in two weeks. Developers are testing the application running on 10 EC2 instances managed by an Auto Scaling group in subnet 172.31.0.0/24 within VPC A with CIDR block 172.31.0.0/16. The Developers noticed connection timeout errors in the application logs while connecting to an Oracle database running on an Amazon EC2 instance in the same region within VPC B with CIDR block 172.50.0.0/16. The IP of the database instance is hard-coded in the application instances.

Which recommendations should a Solutions Architect present to the Developers to solve the problem in a secure way with minimal maintenance and overhead?

 

166. A Solutions Architect has been asked to look at a company’s Amazon Redshift cluster, which has quickly become an integral part of its technology and supports key business process. The Solutions Architect is to increase the reliability and availability of the cluster and provide options to ensure that if an issue arises, the cluster can either operate or be restored within four hours.

Which of the following solution options BEST addresses the business need in the most cost-effective manner?

 


 

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