post page top logo

Free Cissp Practice Exam Questions 2022 Updated with Valid CISSP PDF Dumps Download

Pass your CISSP Exam with Certspilot Updated PDF Braindumps, We provide Updated and Valid Cissp Real Exam questions in PDF Dumps, Practice on Our free CISSP Practice Exam, or download Complete 630 Cissp Exam questions and Pass your exam on the first attempt If you have less time or want to pass your Cissp Exam just prepare questions from our Cissp Dumps and Ace your exam on the first go. Let's practice on our free CISSP Exam questions 2022 Updated.

Practice on Below free Practice CISSP Dumps, Our Dumps are Updated according to 2022 CISSP Exam Material/

1. For privacy protected data, which of the following roles has the highest authority for establishing dissemination rules for the data?

2. Which of the following controls is the FIRST step in protecting privacy in an information system?

3. Which of the following BEST avoids data remanence disclosure for cloud hosted resources?

4. What is the MOST efficient way to secure a production program and its data?

5. What is the MOST efficient way to secure a production program and its data?

6. If compromised, which of the following would lead to the exploitation of multiple virtual machines?

7. Which of the following is the MOST important output from a mobile application threat modeling exercise according to Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP)?


8. Which one of the following operates at the session, transport, or network layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?

9. Which of the following secures web transactions at the Transport Layer?

10. Which of the following is the MOST effective method of mitigating data theft from an active user workstation?


11. Which of the following protocols would allow an organization to maintain a centralized list of users that can read a protected webpage?

12. The BEST method to mitigate the risk of a dictionary attack on a system is to

13. Which of the following is an advantage of on-premise Credential Management Systems?

14. Which of the following prevents improper aggregation of privileges in Role Based Access Control (RBAC)?

15. The implementation of which features of an identity management system reduces costs and administration overhead while improving audit and accountability?

16. Which of the following is the BEST method to assess the effectiveness of an organization's vulnerability management program?

17. Which methodology is recommended for penetration testing to be effective in the development phase of the life-cycle process?

18. Which of the following is most helpful in applying the principle of LEAST privilege?

19. Which of the following explains why record destruction requirements are included in a data retention policy?

20. What should happen when an emergency change to a system must be performed?

21. Which of the following is the BEST approach to take in order to effectively incorporate the concepts of business continuity into the organization?

22. Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on an organization's security posture?

23. The application of which of the following standards would BEST reduce the potential for data breaches?

24. In order for a security policy to be effective within an organization, it MUST include

25. Which of the following roles has the obligation to ensure that a third party provider is capable of processing and handling data in a secure manner and meeting the standards set by the organization?

26. To protect auditable information, which of the following MUST be configured to only allow read access?

27. What type of encryption is used to protect sensitive data in transit over a network?

28. Which of the following entities is ultimately accountable for data remanence vulnerabilities with data replicated by a cloud service provider?

29. Which of the following is a recommended alternative to an integrated email encryption system?

30. In the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model, which layer is responsible for the transmission of binary data over a communications network?

31. What is the PRIMARY goal for using Domain Name System Security Extensions (DNSSEC) to sign


32. While inventorying storage equipment, it is found that there are unlabeled, disconnected, and powered off devices. Which of the following is the correct procedure for handling such equipment?

33. The PRIMARY characteristic of a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is that it

34. Which of the following is generally indicative of a replay attack when dealing with biometric authentication?

35. During a fingerprint verification process, which of the following is used to verify identity and authentication?

36. The BEST example of the concept of "something that a user has" when providing an authorized user access to a computing system is

37. A security professional is asked to provide a solution that restricts a bank teller to only perform a savings deposit transaction but allows a supervisor to perform corrections after the transaction. Which of the following is the MOST effective solution?

38. Sensitive customer data is going to be added to a database. What is the MOST effective implementation for ensuring data privacy?

39. Which of the following types of security testing is the MOST effective in providing a better indication

of the everyday security challenges of an organization when performing a security risk assessment?

40. What is the MOST effective method of testing custom application code?

41. Which one of the following is a common risk with network configuration management?

42. What type of test assesses a Disaster Recovery (DR) plan using realistic disaster scenarios while maintaining minimal impact to business operations?

43. How can lessons learned from business continuity training and actual recovery incidents BEST be used?

44. Which of the following is the PRIMARY issue when collecting detailed log information?

45. An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) has recently been deployed in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). The IDS detects a flood of malformed packets. Which of the following BEST describes what has occurred?

46. Which of the following command line tools can be used in the reconnaissance phase of a network vulnerability assessment?

47. In configuration management, what baseline configuration information MUST be maintained for each computer system?

48. Which Radio Frequency Interference (RFI) phenomenon associated with bundled cable runs can create information leakage?

49. An organization’s information security strategic plan MUST be reviewed

50. When building a data classification scheme, which of the following is the PRIMARY concern?

51. Which technology is a prerequisite for populating the cloud-based directory in a federated identity solution?

52. What is an advantage of Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC)?

53. Backup information that is critical to the organization is identified through a

54. When using Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) tunneling over Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), where is the GRE header inserted?

55. An application developer is deciding on the amount of idle session time that the application allows before a timeout. The BEST reason for determining the session timeout requirement is


56. Knowing the language in which an encrypted message was originally produced might help a cryptanalyst to perform a

57. During the Security Assessment and Authorization process, what is the PRIMARY purpose for conducting a hardware and software inventory?

58. When evaluating third-party applications, which of the following is the GREATEST responsibility of Information Security?

59. An employee of a retail company has been granted an extended leave of absence by Human Resources (HR). This information has been formally communicated to the access provisioning team. Which of the following is the BEST action to take?

60. The goal of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is to determine which of the following?

61. An organization publishes and periodically updates its employee policies in a file on their intranet. Which of the following is a PRIMARY security concern?

62. What does the Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) determine?

63. What is a characteristic of Secure Socket Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS)?

64. How does a Host Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) identify a potential attack?

65. From a cryptographic perspective, the service of non-repudiation includes which of the following features?

66. Which of the following BEST represents the concept of least privilege?

67. Which of the following is an advantage of on-premise Credential Management Systems?


69. When designing a vulnerability test, which one of the following is likely to give the BEST indication of what components currently operate on the network?

70. Which of the following approaches is the MOST effective way to dispose of data on multiple hard drives?

71. Which of the following BEST describes Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?

72. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of a formalized information classification program?

73. Which of the following is the BEST method to reduce the effectiveness of phishing attacks?

74. The PRIMARY purpose of accreditation is to:

75. Which of the following is a weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?

76. When writing security assessment procedures, what is the MAIN purpose of the test outputs and reports?

77. Which of the following is the MAIN reason for using configuration management?

78. Which of the following is BEST suited for exchanging authentication and authorization messages in a multi-party decentralized environment?

79. Which of the following is BEST suited for exchanging authentication and authorization messages in a multi-party decentralized environment?

80. Which of the following is MOST important when deploying digital certificates?

81. A user sends an e-mail request asking for read-only access to files that are not considered sensitive. A Discretionary Access Control (DAC) methodology is in place. Which is the MOST suitable approach that the administrator should take?

82. How should an organization determine the priority of its remediation efforts after a vulnerability assessment has been conducted?

83. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

84. A proxy firewall operates at what layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?

85. Which of the following restricts the ability of an individual to carry out all the steps of a particular process?

86. Although code using a specific program language may not be susceptible to a buffer overflow attack,

87. What is the BEST way to encrypt web application communications?

88. Which of the following are effective countermeasures against passive network-layer attacks?

89. What is the MOST important element when considering the effectiveness of a training program for Business Continuity (BC) and Disaster Recovery (DR)?

90. A database administrator is asked by a high-ranking member of management to perform specific changes to the accounting system database. The administrator is specifically instructed to not track or evidence the change in a ticket. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

91. Which of the following is the MOST important goal of information asset valuation?

92. Which of the following is a strategy of grouping requirements in developing a Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E)?

93. Which one of the following activities would present a significant security risk to organizations when employing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) solution?

94. Which of the following BEST describes a chosen plaintext attack?

95. For network based evidence, which of the following contains traffic details of all network sessions in order to detect anomalies?

96. Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform regular vulnerability scanning of an organization network?

97. Which of the following would BEST describe the role directly responsible for data within an organization?

98. The restoration priorities of a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) are based on which of the following documents?

99. The PRIMARY outcome of a certification process is that it provides documented

100. A security architect plans to reference a Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model for implementation. This indicates that which of the following properties are being prioritized?

101. A vulnerability in which of the following components would be MOST difficult to detect?

102. During which of the following processes is least privilege implemented for a user account?

103. Which of the following is a document that identifies each item seized in an investigation, including date and time seized, full name and signature or initials of the person who seized the item, and a detailed description of the item?

104. Which of the following is needed to securely distribute symmetric cryptographic keys?

105. Reciprocal backup site agreements are considered to be

106. In which identity management process is the subject’s identity established?

107. In order to assure authenticity, which of the following are required?

108. At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) model are the source and destination address for a datagram handled?

109. An organization regularly conducts its own penetration tests. Which of the following scenarios MUST be covered for the test to be effective?

110. A company was ranked as high in the following National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) functions: Protect, Detect, Respond and Recover. However, a low maturity grade was attributed to the Identify function. In which of the following the controls categories does this company need to improve when analyzing its processes individually?

111. What is the difference between media marking and media labeling?

112. What balance MUST be considered when web application developers determine how informative application error messages should be constructed?

113. What operations role is responsible for protecting the enterprise from corrupt or contaminated


114. Which of the following is a characteristic of the initialization vector when using Data Encryption Standard (DES)?

115. In general, servers that are facing the Internet should be placed in a demilitarized zone (DMZ). What is MAIN purpose of the DMZ?

116. Network-based logging has which advantage over host-based logging when reviewing malicious activity about a victim machine?

117. Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for employing physical security personnel at entry points in facilities where card access is in operation?

118. Between which pair of Open System Interconnection (OSI) Reference Model layers are routers used

as a communications device?

119. Which type of security testing is being performed when an ethical hacker has no knowledge about the target system but the testing target is notified before the test?

120. Which of the following countermeasures is the MOST effective in defending against a social engineering attack?

121. Which of the following information MUST be provided for user account provisioning?

122. Which of the following adds end-to-end security inside a Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) connection?

123. A company has decided that they need to begin maintaining assets deployed in the enterprise. What approach should be followed to determine and maintain ownership information to bring the company into compliance?

124. In the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), maintaining accurate hardware and software inventories is a critical part of

125. As a best practice, the Security Assessment Report (SAR) should include which of the following sections?


126. The application of a security patch to a product previously validate at Common Criteria (CC) Evaluation Assurance Level (EAL) 4 would

127. Which of the following media sanitization techniques is MOST likely to be effective for an organization using public cloud services?

128. What type of wireless network attack BEST describes an Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP) attack?

129. Which of the following is a remote access protocol that uses a static authentication?

130. Which of the following sets of controls should allow an investigation if an attack is not blocked by

preventive controls or detected by monitoring?

131. Determining outage costs caused by a disaster can BEST be measured by the

132. Which of the following is considered a secure coding practice?

133. As part of the security assessment plan, the security professional has been asked to use a negative testing strategy on a new website. Which of the following actions would be performed?

134. Who has the PRIMARY responsibility to ensure that security objectives are aligned with organization goals?

135. Which of the following alarm systems is recommended to detect intrusions through windows in a high-noise, occupied environment?

136. Which of the following is the MOST effective practice in managing user accounts when an employee is terminated?

137. Which of the following is the MOST important part of an awareness and training plan to prepare employees for emergency situations?


138. What is the process of removing sensitive data from a system or storage device with the intent that the data cannot be reconstructed by any known technique?

139. Which one of the following considerations has the LEAST impact when considering transmission security?

140. The security accreditation task of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) process is completed at the end of which phase?

141. Which of the following is the BEST reason for the use of security metrics?

142. Which of the following is a benefit in implementing an enterprise Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution?

143. A control to protect from a Denial-of-Service (DoS) attach has been determined to stop 50% of attacks, and additionally reduces the impact of an attack by 50%. What is the residual risk?

144. Which of the following entails identification of data and links to business processes, applications, and data stores as well as assignment of ownership responsibilities?

145. Which of the following mandates the amount and complexity of security controls applied to a security risk?

146. When determining who can accept the risk associated with a vulnerability, which of the following is MOST important?

147. A security professional determines that a number of outsourcing contracts inherited from a previous merger do not adhere to the current security requirements. Which of the following BEST minimizes

the risk of this happening again?

148. Which of the following is a direct monetary cost of a security incident?

149. Which of the following would MINIMIZE the ability of an attacker to exploit a buffer overflow?

150. Which of the following mechanisms will BEST prevent a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack?

151. Which factors MUST be considered when classifying information and supporting assets for risk management, legal discovery, and compliance?

152. When network management is outsourced to third parties, which of the following is the MOST effective method of protecting critical data assets?

153. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when reusing media that contains sensitive data?

154. An organization recently conducted a review of the security of its network applications. One of the

vulnerabilities found was that the session key used in encrypting sensitive information to a third party server had been hard-coded in the client and server applications. Which of the following would be MOST effective in mitigating this vulnerability?


155. Which of the following methods of suppressing a fire is environmentally friendly and the MOST appropriate for a data center?

156. Unused space in a disk cluster is important in media analysis because it may contain which of the following?

157. A company seizes a mobile device suspected of being used in committing fraud. What would be the BEST method used by a forensic examiner to isolate the powered-on device from the network and preserve the evidence?

158. Which of the following is MOST appropriate for protecting confidentially of data stored on a hard drive?

159. Which of the following is the MOST effective method to mitigate Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks?

160. What is the MOST significant benefit of an application upgrade that replaces randomly generated session keys with certificate based encryption for communications with backend servers?

161. A user has infected a computer with malware by connecting a Universal Serial Bus (USB) storage device.

Which of the following is MOST effective to mitigate future infections?

162. Which of the following MUST be in place to recognize a system attack?

163. Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of implementing a Role Based Access Control (RBAC) system?

164. Which Identity and Access Management (IAM) process can be used to maintain the principle of least privilege?


Download full version

Related Exams

Best Microsoft Azure Certification

 Ever wondered what the best Microsoft Azure certifications are? Or which Azure certification will help you get your dream job? Then fasten your seatbelt to embark on the journey for deep insight into the best

Are Splunk certifications worth it?

Splunk is a popular software platform used for searching, analyzing, and visualizing machine-generated data. It’s commonly used in fields such as IT, security, and finance to help organizations make data-driven decisions. One way to increase

About The Author


Certspilot is a platform where you can get to access to free Practice test questions for all IT certification like Microsoft, AWS, CompTIA, Salesforce, Cisco, CISSP and others certifications exam, you can download Updated and Valid Exam Dumps in PDF format and prepare yourself for certification exam in very short time. If you have any other question or need assistance regarding to your certification exam, click on Live Chat Icon and get in touch with our customer support agent, we are available 24/7 for customer support or send email at
[email protected].

Leave a Comment